Correct answer: (a) I and II only
Explanation
- A
I and II only
I and II only. RBI earns from dealing in government bonds and from buying and selling foreign currency while it manages reserves.
- B
II, III and IV
II, III and IV. Drops G-secs, and keeps pension management and lending to private firms, which are not RBI income lines.
- C
I, III, IV and V
I, III, IV and V. The trap bundle: pension funds, private-company lending and note-printing are not RBI income sources.
- D
I, II and V
I, II and V. Correctly keeps bonds and forex, but treats printing and distributing notes as income. Printing is a cost of the issue function.
Summary. Official Set A key is (a) I and II only. The Reserve Bank’s surplus comes mainly from interest and trading on its government-security portfolio and from foreign-exchange assets (and from some fee income). Open-market operations mean it buys and sells G-secs — that is income-related (I). Reserve management means it buys and sells foreign currency and earns on the foreign portfolio (II). It does not run pension funds; NPS sits with PFRDA and fund managers (III). It is banker to banks and the government, not a commercial lender to private companies (IV). Printing and distributing notes is an expense of currency issue; seigniorage is from issuing money, not from the printing press (V). So only I and II are sources of income.
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